Background: Lightfoot says that in Phil 2:3 "the verb is suppressed, as is very frequently the case in imperative sentences after mh." In his comment on Gal 5:13 where it is clear that an imperative is suppressed, Lightfoot further states, "The omission of the verb after the prohibitive mh is common in classical writers..." So is this common in the NT, or just Classical? To find out I have the following question....

Question: how would one search to find NT verses where the imperative is suppressed after
mh? A search that includes the forms of mh linked by OR and then does not contain a proper verb within a couple of words after mh would be a good approximation, but I can't figure out how to do this.