If I may make so bold: Is in the BHT the kethib rendering correct of 1Ki 18:42?
Roel
If I may make so bold: Is in the BHT the kethib rendering correct of 1Ki 18:42?
Roel
If I understand your question, does the transliteration in the BHT match the kethib in WTT.
I would say no. It appears as if the transliteration reads the final waw as the vowel - holem "o", while the WTT (and BHS) reads it as the consonent waw.
Both pronominal suffixes are 3ms, the only difference would be as to whether the noun is understood as the singular "knee" or the plural/dual "knees". As nowhere else does BHS speak of "his knee" in the singular, "his knees" (the qere) is probably more likely.
It appears as if a scribe, somewhere along the line, omitted the yod.
Well, you've all got me confused now. Congratulations!
Are you saying that the Kethib reading is simply an erroneous reading and that the Qere is correct, or that there is a typo in the database or the BHS, neither of which I could find, if I understand what's going on?
It does sound that Jim's statement, if I understand this thing, is the correct one.