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Thread: Should translation be affected dy doctrine

  1. #1
    Join Date
    Feb 2008

    Default Should translation be affected dy doctrine

    When carrying out a comparative analysis made between the various english translations and original language sources - it is amazing how much is ignored in favour of doctrinal bias. Has anyone tried comparing the NIV or other modern renderings against NT source texts?

  2. #2

    Default Not just the NIV...

    A passage I use in my Adv. Greek classes to help demonstrate theological bias is Rom 1.16f. (HERE is my PDF worksheet.) There are a ton of issues in translating these verses.
    • What is understood by "righteousness of God"? Subjective genitive? Source?
    • How is it best to regard the ek in ek pistews?
    • Most importantly, how do you translate the quote from Habakkuk 2.4 which has three elements: 1) ο δικαιος 2) εκ πιστεως 3) ζησεται - In what order are these elements translated, and what difference does it make? (While you are at it, also pay attention to how the tense of ζησεται is handled.)
    In this particular instance, I think the Good News=TEV actually gets it right. The RSV and the NET are probably the most 'neutral' and (appropriately) force the reader to understand the passage within the larger context of the argument in Romans. The NIV makes some defensible choices. The Living Bible is really bad...
    Mark G. Vitalis Hoffman
    Professor of Biblical Studies
    Lutheran Theological Seminary at Gettysburg -
    Biblical Studies and Technological Tools

  3. #3
    Join Date
    Apr 2004

    Default Not the appropriate forum

    While this is a worthy topic to discuss, we need to move it to the non-BibleWorks forum. This forum is only for discussing how to use BibleWorks.


  4. #4
    Join Date
    Feb 2008

    Default Translation Vs Doctrine

    Mark- thanks for your reply. I would suggest one area where TEV seems to follow other translators is in Col 1:15-20. It maybe a hot topic!

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