
Originally Posted by
Dale A. Brueggemann
For the same reason that a lot of what true prophets said in the Old Testament didn't end up in one of the writing prophet's books. For the same reason that we have no clue what most of the NT prophets said, e.g., Barnabas, Simeon called Niger, Lucius of Cyrene, Manaen (who had been brought up with Herod the tetrarch) and Saul. (Acts 13:1 NIV)
The equation of "revelation" with "canon" doesn't cut it. All canon is revelation, but not all revelation is canon.
Yes, oral revelation was necessary before written revelation was completed. Mid-first century Christians did not have a written New Testament they could consult. But the NT alludes to a time when the reception of miraculous revelation would end (I Cor. 13:8-10). With the death of the last apostle, the means of conferring such gifts ended (Acts 8:18).
I am aware that "revelation" and "canon" are not synonymous terms. However, with the closing of the canon, Divine special revelation also ceased. If there were new special Divine revelation--other than what the Bible says--would it not be just as authoritative as what the Bible says? And would it not be incumbent upon the one receiving it to distribute it as widely as writings of the apostles and other inspired writers of the NT have been distributed?
καὶ ὑπὲρ πάντων ἀπέθανεν ἵνα οἱ ζῶντες μηκέτι ἑαυτοῖς ζῶσιν, ἀλλὰ τῷ ὑπὲρ αὐτῶν ἀποθανόντι καὶ ἐγερθέντι.