In Matthew 4:4 it seems to me that Matthew relies more on the LXX as a source than the WTT.

In Matthew 27:46 it seems to me that Matthew felies more on the WTT as a source than the LXX.

My first question: Has anyone done any work on the number of times Matthew follows the LXX as opposed to the WTT or vice versa?

My second question: In general, when Matthew quotes the OT, is there any significance, other than stylistic preference, to citing one source over the other?

My third question: As we approach Passion Week, does anyone have any musings about Matthew 27:46 they care to share?