Audio NT+LXX in KOINE pronounciation?

[brainout]

Thanks to BibleWorks, I can tell how the Jews who translated into Greek pronounced BOTH the Hebrew and the Greek of that time. I'll go with their transliteration phonetics. That's how I learned Isaiah 53's Hebrew meter parsing, which lays out a prophecy map God uses to Daniel in Daniel 9. So that's how I'll learn to speak Bible Greek, too.

It's not hard. It's not possible that ai, ei, oi, and ui all have an "ee" sound. It's not possible that the beth with a dagesh transliterated with a Greek B (compare baraq, beth=house) have a "v" sound only. It's not possible that Greek D, which is transliterated for dalet with and without dagesh, to only have a dth sound. Letters are different for a reason.

Thank you for your kind help, and I will learn the modern Greek pronounciation (it's natural anyway, I always mix Greek sounds when reading) -- but I'm going to RELEARN Greek via the LXX transliteration. THAT would be closer to the Greek my Lord spoke.

[brainout]

http://ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/view...4e428b1b5c5304 is a thread in B-Greek related to the history of diacritical marks, and http://www.biblicallanguagecenter.co...pronunciation/ is a link to Dr. Buth's defense of how 1st-century Greek should be spoken. He uses 2nd-century texts as if the spelling indicated pronunciation for the whole NT period. Our English of 1611 is markedly different from today's. English pronunciation I was taught 50 years ago, is dissimilar from today's usage. I still aspirate 'stop' and 'top', for example.

So too, it seems that the pronunciation of Greek words differ in Paul's writing, versus Mary's. Using BW's GNT, I get a completely balanced meter in the Magnificat, whereas Paul rarely elides, in his balanced meter (Luke 1:46-55 versus Ephesians 1:3-14. Videos on the meter are in my 11 GGS series under 'brainouty' in Youtube.) Elision was an Attic practice for euphony, and apparently in Mary's day there was a hot debate over it. Later on, the fashion was to allow hiatus, for the sake of clarity. Paul therefore seldom elides.

So how much debate now ensues over Dr. Buth's timespan for his claim of Koine Greek pronunciation? Thank you in advance for your own time!

Postscript FYI: 1) Dr. Buth's arguments seem to be based on tracing elision history in order to derive 'authentic' pronunciation. 2) Bible has its own accounting meter system going back to Psalm 90 that I've been tracing; it has different elision patterns: almost no elision in Psalm 90, regular elision in Isaiah 53, rare elision in Daniel 9; frequent elision in Magnificat, rare elision in Ephesians 1. Those are the Bible sections I've shown in videos thus far, but there are hundreds of them in OT; probably more than two, in the NT. This is an accounting for TIME unique to Bible; it runs under but is related to, the text: TIME reference runs in a circle; first retrospectively, but ends prospectively (i.e., re prophecy). There are about 30 complex rhetorical style characteristics in these 'time poems' (for lack of a better term); I'm gradually learning what they are, from the texts. So for now, the videos just document the rhetorical styles live, from the text.

[brainout]

As many of you know, BibleWorks 8 et seq. has a Greek pronunciation module. I just started listening to it. But did you know, that this very topic was debated in Augustus' day? Here's a link about it: http://books.google.com/books?id=SEs...els%22&f=false

If anyone can provide more information about that ancient debate, I'd be very grateful. Mary's Magnificat and Paul's Eph 1:3-14 are both metered based on the Psalm 90 model, but using Greek words; yet their pronunciation of the Greek words, CHANGED. So we might get closer to how they pronounced words, between Mary's day, and Paul's.

Also: it seems that, just as in modern times, there is a 'standard' and a 'common' way to pronounce words. So our current debate in the Buth camp, seems to focus on how common people pronounced words, based on their misspellings. But was that the 'standard' you were taught? And should we read Bible in light of 'standard' pronunciation, or 'common'? I vote the former. But if the standard CHANGED between Mary's time and Paul's, that would prove important. Mary elides. Paul rarely does. Neither quite follow either what we today call Erasmian, or the Buthian models.

Again, if you have more information on the debate during Augustus' time, I'd be most grateful to get it. THANK YOU!