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Thread: ESV Matthew 16:18

  1. #1
    Join Date
    Feb 2007
    Posts
    12

    Default ESV Matthew 16:18

    Can anyone shed some light on what possible explanation for the ESV transliterating every occurrence of Hades except for Matthew 16:18 where they use "hell"? Everywhere else "hell" is used it is translated from "Gehenna".

    I am quite bothered by this.
    Last edited by seadams; 02-09-2007 at 01:22 AM.

  2. #2

    Default Hades > "hell"

    That is interesting, given that the LXX generally uses h;dh as a translation for lAav.. And for pu,laij a[|dou see Job 38:17; Isa 38:10; Matt 16:18; Wis 16:13; 3 Macc 5:51. Makes me wonder if the only reason is their desire to remain "in the classic mainstream of English Bible translations over the past half-millennium" (i.e., Tyndale > KJV). The ESV "Preface" does say, "The words and phrases themselves grow out of the Tyndale-King James legacy."

    Dale A. Brueggemann

    כִּי עֶזְרָא הֵכִין לְבָבוֹ לִדְרוֹשׁ אֶת־תּוֹרַת יְהוָה וְלַעֲשֹׂת וּלְלַמֵּד בְּיִשְׂרָאֵל חֹק וּמִשְׁפָּט (Ezra 7:10)


  3. #3
    Join Date
    Feb 2007
    Posts
    12

    Default my thoughts also

    That's how it seems to me also--it just sounds more impressive to say "the gates of hell". This is disappointing, but no work of man is perfect. Still...this seems pretty blatant.

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