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Kevin Ahronson
03-12-2005, 03:31 PM
With the new NLT going more literal, and the NIV going less literal with the TNIV, has anyone made a detailed comparison between the two yet?

For instance; have they passed each other by as they travel in opposite directions, so that the new NLT might have become more literal than the TNIV?

That would be something wouldn't it? :o

wezlo
03-13-2005, 06:01 AM
I've seen how the TNIV is actually more "literal" than the NIV. They keep Jesus' two "amen's" in the translation, for example....

Gontroppo
03-13-2005, 04:18 PM
You can now compare the TNIV and NIV very easily at www.tniv.info (http://www.tniv.info)

While some may feel that the use of some gender inclusive language may make the TNIV less literal, there are many instances of the TNIV being more formally close to the original than the NIV. But I would question whether rendering "ADELFOI" as "Brothers" in a place where it clearly refers to men and women could be said to be more literal than rendering it in an inclusive way.

One instance is where the NIV renders GUNAI as "Dear woman" whereas the TNIV has "Woman," but includes a footnote, pointing out that this usage was not offensive. I never realised how many times Jesus and others use this term in John's Gospel until yesterday.

The TNIV is very similar to the NIV, especially in the OT.

Concerning the NLT2, this translation is still free, but has been reworked and is quite interpretive, but closer formally to the original text than before.

I find both new translations helpful, when used in conjunction with the many others we are blessed with.

David McKay
www.davidmckay.info (http://www.davidmckay.info)