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BobStallman
02-09-2005, 06:59 PM
In Amos 4:11 the word kemahpekat is parsed as a preposition (ke) plus a Qal infinitive construct of the verb hpk (to overthrow). I have doubts about that.

This same form also appears five times elsewhere (Deut 29:22; Isa 1:7; 13:19; Jer 49:18; 50:40) but in those cases it is parsed as a feminine singular noun in the construct ( from mahpekah). This seems correct.

Does anyone know why the word is parsed this way in Amos 4:11?

thanks

Bob

BobStallman
02-09-2005, 10:33 PM
I contacted Al Groves of the Westminster Hebrew Institute which maintains the database. On first glance, he said it looked like a genuine error and entered the item in the queue for consideration.

If anybody wants to learn more about the technical side of the Hebrew database and how to report possible errors, I recommend a look at:

http://whi.wts.edu/WHI/

Michael Hanel
02-10-2005, 01:39 AM
Check out Gesenius section 115d. Basically, it's been morph coded according to its use as a verb here, while the same form morphologically can also be used as a noun. Why the other uses aren't categorized similiarly (one way or the other), it sure beats me :)

Antti
02-10-2005, 04:35 AM
I have a question:

If there is two possible options for parsing a certain word, how has it been defined which is shown in the parsing information??
Why do they not simply give all the possible answers for the users to decide??

Michael Hanel
02-10-2005, 10:37 AM
In some cases they have done this, i.e. where there is much controversy over a form, but in this specific case the verb here is parsed as an infinitive construct in a couple of commentaries I check out on Amos as well. In other words there aren't a lot of people (that I see) that are making a case for this as a noun.