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Dale A. Brueggemann
02-28-2012, 01:12 PM
Can anyone tell me what reading the ESV translators were reflecting with the phrase "...send us away into...." (Matt 8:31 ESV)?

ἀπόστειλον ἡμᾶς εἰς (Matt 8:31 BGT)
ἐπίτρεψον ἡμῖν ἀπελθεῖν εἰς (Matt 8:31 SCR)


Don't see a note in the ESV, and the phrase doesn't clearly match either NA27 or BYZ. Am I missing something here?

DavidR
02-28-2012, 01:19 PM
That certainly looks like ἀπόστειλον to me. Most contemporary versions have "send us," following NA27. Is it the "away" that's the problem?

Dale A. Brueggemann
02-28-2012, 02:31 PM
Is it the "away" that's the problem?

Yes; that makes me wonder if they were reading ἀπέρχομαι instead.

Jim Wert
02-29-2012, 01:20 AM
I don't know no Greek.

But ...
ESV is a relatively light revision of RSV, which says "send us away into".
And RSV is a revision of ASV, which says "send us away into".
And ASV is a revision of KJV, which says "suffer us to go away into".
KJV follows Bishops', which says "suffer vs to go away into".
So it looks to me to involve respect for the KJV tradition of translation.

I would note that for ἀπόστειλον BDAG says "1. to dispatch someone for the achievement of some objective, send away/out". Most of the other lexicons also mention "send away".