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jthomp
09-24-2010, 11:14 PM
Why is it that the Alexandrinus manuscript is considered Byzantine within the Gospels and Alexandrian in the rest of the NT? :confused:

Adelphos
09-25-2010, 12:56 PM
Why is it that the Alexandrinus manuscript is considered Byzantine within the Gospels and Alexandrian in the rest of the NT? :confused:

Because of an arbitrary classification system Alexandrinus contains more "Byzantine" readings in the Gospels and more "Alexandrian" readings in the Pauline epistles.

jthomp
09-25-2010, 05:59 PM
I once heard some story about the Gospels section of Alexandrinus being borrowed by a group of monks and it was subsequently destroyed in a fire or some accident. The monks replace it with a Byzantine copy. Have you heard anything like that?

Adelphos
09-25-2010, 06:18 PM
I once heard some story about the Gospels section of Alexandrinus being borrowed by a group of monks and it was subsequently destroyed in a fire or some accident. The monks replace it with a Byzantine copy. Have you heard anything like that?

What passes for modern textual criticism is full of stories.

Actual evidence for these stories, on the other hand, is more rare than a living T-Rex.

You can see my upcoming Part III for more details on this exact issue, which hopefully will posted in the next several days.

jthomp
09-25-2010, 07:11 PM
You can see my upcoming Part III for more details on this exact issue, which hopefully will posted in the next several days.

I'll look forward to reading it...

Adelphos
09-26-2010, 07:52 PM
I'll look forward to reading it...

Have at it! :cool: