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Yaku Lee
05-26-2009, 04:04 AM
Both instances of אשׁרה in the following Jdg 3:7 and 2Ch 19:3 are exactly the same, as far as I can observe. But why does the WTM morphological analysis say one is an instance of a proper noun while the other an instance of a feminine common noun just like all the other 38 instances in WTT? Is there any reason the “Asheroth” of Jdg 3:7 should be treated different from the other 39 cases of “Asher*,” or did they simply make a slip in WTM Morphology?

וְאֶת־הָאֲשֵׁרוֹת (Jdg 3:7 WTT)


אֲשֵׁרָה noun proper no gender no number no state (WTM Morphology)

הָאֲשֵׁרוֹת (2Ch 19:3 WTT)


אֲשֵׁרָה noun common feminine plural absolute (WTM Morphology)

Thank you for your response in advance.

SkipB
05-26-2009, 08:52 AM
The word Asherah is linked to the Canaanite goddess, consort of El and was represented by a sacred pillar. At Judges 3:7 someone believed it was unambiguous to take it as a reference to the former. There are other places that I believe appear equally certain. For example 2 Kings 23:4. I am surprised that the Jud. passage actually was listed as a proper noun because it could easily be construed as the sign (sacred pillars) and not the name. So yes this seems to be an anomolous and inconsistent judgment by the editors of the wtm at this point.