View Full Version : Should translation be affected dy doctrine
02-16-2008, 07:55 PM
When carrying out a comparative analysis made between the various english translations and original language sources - it is amazing how much is ignored in favour of doctrinal bias. Has anyone tried comparing the NIV or other modern renderings against NT source texts?
A passage I use in my Adv. Greek classes to help demonstrate theological bias is Rom 1.16f. (HERE (http://www.gettysburgseminary.org/mhoffman/advgreekS07/Romans%201.16f.pdf)is my PDF worksheet.) There are a ton of issues in translating these verses.
What is understood by "righteousness of God"? Subjective genitive? Source?
How is it best to regard the ek in ek pistews?
Most importantly, how do you translate the quote from Habakkuk 2.4 which has three elements: 1) ο δικαιος 2) εκ πιστεως 3) ζησεται - In what order are these elements translated, and what difference does it make? (While you are at it, also pay attention to how the tense of ζησεται is handled.)In this particular instance, I think the Good News=TEV actually gets it right. The RSV and the NET are probably the most 'neutral' and (appropriately) force the reader to understand the passage within the larger context of the argument in Romans. The NIV makes some defensible choices. The Living Bible is really bad...
02-19-2008, 09:57 AM
While this is a worthy topic to discuss, we need to move it to the non-BibleWorks forum. This forum is only for discussing how to use BibleWorks.
02-20-2008, 01:21 PM
Mark- thanks for your reply. I would suggest one area where TEV seems to follow other translators is in Col 1:15-20. It maybe a hot topic!
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