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seadams
02-09-2007, 01:11 AM
Can anyone shed some light on what possible explanation for the ESV transliterating every occurrence of Hades except for Matthew 16:18 where they use "hell"? Everywhere else "hell" is used it is translated from "Gehenna".

I am quite bothered by this.

Dale A. Brueggemann
02-09-2007, 08:09 AM
That is interesting, given that the LXX generally uses h;dh as a translation for lAav.. And for pu,laij a[|dou see Job 38:17; Isa 38:10; Matt 16:18; Wis 16:13; 3 Macc 5:51. Makes me wonder if the only reason is their desire to remain "in the classic mainstream of English Bible translations over the past half-millennium" (i.e., Tyndale > KJV). The ESV "Preface" does say, "The words and phrases themselves grow out of the Tyndale-King James legacy."

seadams
02-09-2007, 10:14 PM
That's how it seems to me also--it just sounds more impressive to say "the gates of hell". This is disappointing, but no work of man is perfect. Still...this seems pretty blatant.